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Calc forward rates from spot rates or zero coupon rates

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I ran into a question that gave some zero coupon rates and asked to calcuate forward rate. For example, they zero coupon rates for 1 year, 2 year and  3 year bonds. THen asked to calcuate the 1 year forward rate 2 years from now..  So the answer is Y3^3 / Y2^2

THen I ran into an identical question but this time they provided spot rates for 1, 2 and 3 years with identical calcuations.

So the method to calcuates forward rates with both spot rates and zero coupon rates? they are the same, zero coupon and spots?


CFA text capital strucutre EOC #16

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Could anybody help me understand how they were able to make the conclusion that operating leveage would be lower for Bema vs. Aquarius? 

I thought that since after the share repurchase announcement, and Bema’s market value declines, this would increase the business risk/operating leverage of the company.

Disclosure of gifts from client

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Hello,

In the indepedepence and objectivity portion of ethics, they explain receiving gifts from clients if ok as long as it is disclosed? 

How come receiving gifts from clients is ok, but not receiving gifts from related parties or providing gifts to potential clients for their business?

FCFF and interest income

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To calculate FCFF, do we net out the interest income and expense?

Or is it just interest expense that gets added back to NI to come to FCFF?

On a side note, interest income is cash flow available to equity holders only, right?

And how does interest income effect FCFF and FCFE?

Quant Critical Values

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Hello guys. will the critical values of the various tests be given in the exam or the tables for each teas will be provided?

Looking for solid practice questions

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I’m looking for a good online question bank to use before I go for the CFAI online questions.  Bloomberg looks good, but I’d like to hear about what others have found useful.

Spot rates from YTM

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Hi, So a spot rate is YTM of a zero-coupon bond, right? But when we have coupon paying bonds then YTM of a single coupon bond with one year maturity is also the spot rate for that bond. Am I correct? Furthermore, If we receive a coupon during the year then its YTM is not its spot rate but when we receive the coupon at the end of the year then its YTM is also its spot rate. right? Please correct me if I’m wrong. Also is the par rate =coupon rate=YTM=spot rate for a single coupon paying bond with suppose one year to maturity and the coupon is to be paid at the end. What if the coupon is to be paid during the one-year tenor then will the par rate be equal to all those rates also?

structural form vs. reduced form model

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What should we explicitly know about each of these two credit models for the exam? I formulas seem very complicated.


goodwill vs. minority interest

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Hello,

What is the difference between goodwill (whether it be full goodwill or partial goodwill) and minority interest? Which one gets reported on the balance sheet under the aquisition method?

difference in curriculum and schewser for convertable bonds.

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schewser: when stock price rises the bond will under perform coz of the conversion premium , this is drawback of investing in convertible bond.

curriculum :convertible bonds do generally rise in value when the issuer’s common stock price goes up.

which one is correct?

why is it that when initiation date increases the distance between the forward and spot rate curve increases?

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Hi,

Also how is it that forward rate is greater than spot rate with the increase in initiation date.

And how is it that YTM is a weighted average of the spot rates

Thanks

Free cash flow to equity

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Hi,

I have been confused about debt to asset ratio in calculation of free cash flow to equity.

Following is my understanding. 

The Debt to Asset ratio of 40% means that 40% of capital investment will be raised through new debt and the rest 60% through current earnings. Hence we are deducting the 60% of Capital investment from Free cash flow to equity.

Also, we do not add the newly raised 40% as a part of net borrowing to FCFE because that would again have to be deducted as capital investment. 

Please confirm if my understanding is correct.

Equity - reading 29- example 5 CFA curriculum books

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Hi, i am working on Equity and had question regarding example 5(iii) for reading 29. It is on page 122 in ebook. 

In the solution, i am not sure how profit margin for each section is applied. Per question, asia pecific growth rate should increase by 50bps each year. So given that it was 10.5% in 2011, i would think it will be 11% in 2012. But text book used 14.85 for asia region. Please let me know if anyone understand how it happened and how it is solved fir western europe

net impact of hedging activities on pre-tax earnings

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Schwesser Level 2 Study Note book 2, Reading 18: Multinational Operations

Concept Checkers, question 14

Can someone please explain the logic behind this to me? I am quite confident when it comes to this reading but at this questions I am totally lost:

Foreign currency fluctuations often drive operational responses that mitigate the simple mechanical translation of earnings. During periods of sustained movements in currency, the marketplace and competition adjust to the changing rates. For example, when pricing offerings in the marketplace, the company may use some of the advantage from a weakening U.S. dollar to improve its position com- petitively, and price more aggressively to win the business, essentially passing on a portion of the currency advantage to its customers. Competition will frequently take the same action. Consequently, the company believes that some of the currency- based changes in cost impact the prices charged to clients. The company also maintains currency hedging programs for cash man- agement purposes which mitigate, but do not eliminate, the volatility of currency impacts on the company’s financial results.

The company translates revenue, cost and expense in its non- U.S. operations at current exchange rates in the reported period. References to “adjusted for currency” or “constant currency” reflect adjustments based upon a simple constant currency mathematical translation of local currency results using the comparable prior period’s currency conversion rate. However, this constant currency methodology that the company utilizes to disclose this information does not incorporate any operational actions that management may take in reaction to fluctuating currency rates. Based on the currency rate movements in 2012, total revenue decreased 2.3 percent as reported and was flat at constant currency versus 2011. On a pre-tax income basis, these translation impacts offset by the net impact of hedging activities resulted in a theoretical maximum (assuming no pricing or sourcing actions) decrease of approximately $100 million in 2012. The same mathematical exercise resulted in an increase of approximately $600 million in 2011. The company views these amounts as a theoretical maximum impact to its as-reported finan- cial results. Considering the operational responses mentioned above, movements of exchange rates, and the nature and timing of hedging instruments, it is difficult to predict future currency impacts on any particular period, but the company believes it could be sub- stantially less than the theoretical maximum given the competitive pressure in the marketplace.  source: https://www.ibm.com/annualreport/2012/bin/assets/2012_ibm_annual.pdf

The most likely impact of currency fluctuations on IBM’s 2011 pre tax earnings net of hedging activities is that pre-tax earnings were:

A. lower by $600 million

B. lower by $100 million

C. higher by $600 million

Pre-tax earnings offset by the net impact of hedging activities decreased approximately $100 million in 2012 and increased by approximately $600 million due to currency translation effects.

Thanks

Terminal value year

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Schweser. Pg 212. Multistage residual income model. 

In this example, the residual income after year 5 is going to be 0 (or other different assumptions in part 2 and 3 of the question). 

Therefore, shouldn’t the terminal value calculation be that of year 5? 

I even cross checked other multistage valuation (ddm et al) and found that TV calculation is always of the last year in the penultimate stage. 

What exactly am I missing here?


Autocorrelation and Covariance Stationarity

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Hi, guys,

I have a really hard time understanding this part of material. My confusion is:

To use autoregressive model, it has to be covariance stationary (same mean, covariance). If a model’s residual is not auto-correlated, then the model is well-specified (covariance stationary). However, random walk model’s error term is uncorrelated, but it is NOT covariance stationary.

This seems quite contradictory to me, and the textbook does not explain it clearly. Does anyone have any ideas?

Where are mark meldrum's videos i think they are removed from his Vimeo account?

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Anyone has any idea how to access them

Inflation expectations and P/E ratios

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The statement: Other things being equal, an increase in inflation expectations would result in lower equity prices relative to current earnings. This would result in lower equilibrium P/E ratios.

Why does the increase in inflation expectations lower equity prices?

[Help] Why in one case you consider the initial purchase price and in the second case you don't?

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Here are the two questions side by side. In both cases the investor has a sunken cost, why is that only being factored into Question 53 and not Question 40?

Multi factor models - Macroeconomic model and Inflation (Please HELPPP)

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In a multi factor model such as the one below

Ri = ai + bi1FINFL + bi2FGDP + εi

The CFAI text states:

The risk premium for the inflation factor, however, is typically negative. Thus, an asset with a positive sensitivity to the inflation factor (an asset with returns that tend to be positive in response to unexpectedly high inflation) would have a lower required return than if its inflation sensitivity were negative; an asset with positive sensitivity to inflation would be in demand for its inflation-hedging ability.

But I am confused.

If: bi1 > 0 and FINFL is greater than expected (actual - expected) > 0  

Then should the required return be higher?

I believe I am interpreting FINFL completely incorrectly. Please help

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